Hello Everyone
I say everyone but really the answers I am looking for hopefully will come from either Steve or VM.
In the 1946 National Health Act at the very start of this act there is a very interesting and also puzzling section. Its odd because it seems to go against one of the core principles of this act.
(1)
General Duty To Provide Services
Section 1:
( 2 )
The services so provided shall be free of charge, except where any provision of this act expressely provides for the making and recovery of charges.
Keep in mind here that this is the original act ( 1946 ) and the active act when the NHS came into being in 1948 and the services were all totally free at the point of need ( including at home, but upon a doctors medical advice). So why the above?
Steve I dont have the full 1946 NHS act and you must have. My question to you; is there something almost hidden away in the pages of that act that would either ( a) allow future amendements or enactments to take place automatically, or ( b) does it relate to something within the act that wasnt free. Something like perhaps cosmetic surgery. I know that in the 50s people who suffered from varicose veins couldnt get surgical stockings free on the NHS because they were considered to be cosmetic in nature..
I find it hard to believe that a man so committed to the cause of a totally free NHS, like Bevan was, would have not seen through this and objected.
It almost seems to be predicting what was to come ( prescription charges ), or what might have to come in 1949:
THE POWER TO IMPOSE AND VARY PRESCRIPTION CHARGES BY REGULATION IS PROVIDED BY SECTION 16 OF THE NATIONAL HEALTH SERVICE AMMENDMENT ACT 1949.
Put in simple terms : is this the get-out clause that would allow them to make charges if they had to and given the economic climate of that time it would have made sense.
It does not stop there however, moving onto 1977 and the NHS Act of that year, the opening sections are the same give or take a word different, except in section 1 ( 2 ) where there has been a very important change:
( 2 )
the services so provided shall be free of charge, except in so far as the making and recovery of charges is expressely provided for, by or under any enactments whenever passed.
In the 2006 NHS Act the wording of this section is identical. In the new health bill to come where section 1 ie;the duty to provide is to be changed ( providing a action by a group of MPs and Lords doesnt come to pass and if it does then the original duty to provide ( as in 1946,1977,2006 will still be a part of the new bill ), section (2) remains the same.
This to my mind is a very clear contradiction to a free health service, it appears to give legal right to negate section 1 ie; the duty to provide free care. This has been in place since 1977. Critically it no longer mentions, like in the 1946 act,; where any provisions of this act etc.
It also raises the question in my mind how is enactments to be defined, do they as one would think, relate to the HEALTH ACT alone, or do they extend to other acts that interact in one way or another with the Health act.
Considering 1977 if the latter is correct then the enactments within act such as the Community Care Act would be taken into section 2 and also would negate section 1. This is a legal framework for charging for social care, even though it is actually mostly health-related social care which if section 1 ( of 1946,1977,2006 ) is interpreted correctly has it should be should be totally free at the point of need. Exactly in line with the core principle of the NHS and the Beveridge Report.
Opinions please.
Kind regards Ian



